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9th January 2006, 07:41 PM
#11
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Originally Posted by
Eelavar
You are saying they used π since 800 BC in India and I don't deny that! I only say that pi is not the invention by Indians first when it is known to Agyptians in 1700 BC already. You must know that 1700 BC is 900 years earlier than 800 BC! Or do you want to deny it?
... It's not a logical thinking ...
Who said you that Indian Civilisation didn't exist before 1700 B.C ??
Harrapa and Indus Valley cities were said to be the one of the most anciant cities until that they discoverd the Dwarka underwater city in Gujarat which is estimitated to 7500 B.C , do you know that my srilankan bro ?
It is not myth but reality.
My srlinkan bro,
what is not a logical thinking?
I said that the egyptians had the knowledge of pi = 3.16... arrounf 1700 BC. It is found on papyrus of that time. This also means that they had already invented writing too.
The matter about pi the vedic moron SRS is talking about is from 800 BC. This Indian pi =3,003 was also not that "accurtae" as of that egyptian.
This only shows that
i) Indians were late in "inventing" pi (later than the Egyptians)
ii) Indians were not accurate with the pi (than the Egyptians)
iii) Indians invented their own pi
Bearing the knowledge about pi has nothing to do with a society that can be called a civilisation, my dear srilankan bro!
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9th January 2006 07:41 PM
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