Originally Posted by NVK Ashraf
Is Caste system Non-Vedic?
Mr. Devichand proclaims:
“. . . . . the Caste system is put as Vedic -the Truth is the Opposite- . . . . . But Tons and Tons of Articles are there against this Truth, and still being advertised with Foreign funds. The Truth is the opposite.”
Let us now see first if Caste or Varna system is Vedic or not. Pratima Bowes (1976) on page 7 of his book “The Hindu Religious Tradition” (Allied Publishers) writes: “In the earlier literature the Vedas and Upanishads, the system does not appear to have been finally fixed, the varna idea, as distinct from caste, still retaining some applicability”. Let us see the following Vedic verses which I managed to trace from the net:
The first indication of the caste system is outlined in the hymn to Purusha in Rig Veda, the embodied human spirit who is one-fourth creature and three-fourths eternal life in heaven.
The Brahman was his mouth,
of both his arms was the Rajanya made.
His thighs became the Vaisya,
from his feet the Sudra was produced. (Rig Veda 10.90.12)
According to the Atharva Veda (5:17:8-9), a Brahman could take a wife from the husband of any other caste simply by seizing her hand. Here are those two verses, translated by Devi Chand:
Even if ten former guardians, none of whom is a Brahmin, espouse the cause of Vedic knowledge, they are no match for a Brahman, who takes into his hand the task of propagating her. He alone is her true guardian. (1087)
Not Vaisya, not Rajanya, nor the Brahman alone is needed her guardian. God, in His dispensation proclaim this to the five races * of mankind. (1088)
Translator Devi Chand’s footnotes for the verse 5.17.9 reads like this.
* "Five races: Brahman, Kshatriya, Vaisya, Shudra, Nishada".
Now, tell me Mr. Devapriya. You cited a Tamil translation of Maxmuller’s write up. “வேத்த்தில் ஒரு சுவடுகூடக் கிடையாது”. Are these references I cited from Rig and Atharva Veda not from Vedas? However, I agree that the system was not well developed during the Vedic times. But it existed, that is for sure.
You are also giving the impression that Manu Smriti alone talks about castiesm (glad to know that you agree with this at least). I did mention in one of my earlier postings (posted: Sat Jun 24, 2006, subject: Couplets against Vedic practice) the following:
With respect to the varņā concept, the Gita is also no different from Manu Smriti for it also sanctions the division amongst men. Says Lord Krishna that the four divisions of human society were created by him (Gita 14:13).
You have not said anything on this. Whether Vedic or not, caste system would have been prevalent during Valluvar’s time. We all agree that Buddha came before Valluvar. Buddha’s Dhammapada contains a full chapter 26 “Brahmin” where he says:
393. One is not a brahmin by virtue of matted hair, lineage or caste. When a man possesses both Truth and truthfulness, then he is pure, then he is a brahmin.
396. I do not call him a brahmin who is so by natural birth from his mother. He is just a supercilious person if he still has possessions of his own. He who owns nothing of his own, and is without attachment - that is what I call a brahmin.
Whether Vedic, or post-Vedic, all these goes on to show that the varna system (sometimes confused with caste system) existed during the time Buddha and Valluvar. When Valluvar says ……
பிறப்பொக்கும் எல்லா உயிர்க்கும் சிறப்பொக்கும்
செய்தொழில் வேற்றுமை யான். (972)
……. it obviously refers to the fact that all equal at birth. You yourself said in your last posting that Valluvar himself accepted caste by indirect references:
“More than that From Sangam Literature and Tholkappiyam we have about Tamil Society- Tamil Society is filled with Vedas, (Though Valluvar has accepted Caste by indirect references, but he has not touched in depth.) along with its good culture”
By trying to emphasize that Caste system was not Vedic, you have kept away form answering the relevant question. Whether Vedic or post Vedic is not the question here! You have unnecessarily wasted time writing about this. You should instead concentrate on the Kural 972 and say if this couplet is against the division of men according to birth. Just answer to the point, please (instead of trying to deny the Vedic origin of caste system about which we are not concerned here).