Indian Mathematics Heritage
Friends,
The word VEDA is from Sanskrit word Vidya, tamilised Viththai, meaning knowledge; most of friends can recall schools are named as VIDYALAYAS.
Now Science of Ancient Medicene is called AyurVeda- Science to increase Ayul( LIFE Period). Hence Maths of Ancient Knowledge can well be Vedic Maths.
The Name Indian Maths is interesting on the look, the Name INDIAN- comes from Vedic Traction; as per which-the Landmass (STAN) between Himalayas and INDU Maga Samudra is the Chosen Land of God, and this place is called HINDUSTAN and people as HINDUS. Now why should we call by corrupt form of Hindu, rather Vedic is much better.
Friends- other accusation was that the Revered. Shankaracharya, who wrote the book, had M.A. in Mathematics and was not said in Public. The book has many introductions, and this is stated. He got his MA in 1904, the book got published in 1960, No other 1000s of MA, or further Phds, could not bring such a detailed Faster Method of Mathematics. Please do not discredit a Person of His Achievement.
Now Companies from Other Countries sell High Speed Mathematics teaching at Rs.500/- per month for 4 hours class per month naming Abacus, taking Cue from the above book.
We have from Bower Manuscript, a Mathematical Manuscript dated to 50 BCE in SANSkrit and of AyurVeda in plenty from 2nd Cen. CE onwards.
Which of the Indo-Eurpean language group, is dated securely to have existed in pre- Christian era, is dated scientifically with the help of dated inscriptions or artifacts? The existence of Proto Indo European language before say 3rd-4th centuries BC is purely based on conjectural inference. How a language, the existence of which is not known by any verifiable means for over three thousand years except in hypothesis, could be accepted as the language and that Sanskrit burrowed from it.
All the Numerals have Sanskrit names, and many proofs in abundance is given, and further can be added.
Re: Indian Mathematics Heritage
Quote:
Originally Posted by devapriya
Friends,
The word VEDA is from Sanskrit word Vidya, tamilised Viththai, meaning knowledge; most of friends can recall schools are named as VIDYALAYAS.
It is not known for certain as to when the Vedas (the first 3 of them) were actually composed and researchers had given different dates. It can be roughly estimated that they had been composed sometime between 1400 and 1000 BCE (after the Aryans had been settled in India as per Indologists).
There is also a proposition that they were sang by the locals before any outsiders had come in; in that event it must have been composed before 1400 BCE by Dravidians. The priestly order of Brahmins had not been created at the time these were composed. For a long time after their composition, they were orally recited and much of them had been forgotten by the time it was decided to reduce them to writing. Today we have only those which had been successfully retrieved from that oral tradition.
It is common sense when such works were being orally recited for a long time, the users of these hymns were likely to effect changes or supply new words for archaic or forgotten ones. Conflict of versions could not be ruled out. There would be nothing to prevent revisions.
The word Veda is not from "Vidya" or knowledge, there being no "vidya" (body of knowledge) prior to the compositions for them to use such a word. Veda was a word coined from vEithal, which means thatching, interweaving or composing. (The difference between this and other forms of knowledge was that this was COMPOSED.) Veithal being a verb, it is Tamil word and vEtham means a composition. “vE +th+ am”.. The use of this word as name for the Vedas shows that once upon a time, the entire subcontinent was occupied by the Dravidians and their languages and words were spoken throughout the subcontinent.
Now Vidya is also from 'vitthu' seed, the verb for that word being “vithaiththal” (sowing). The term viththai only by figurative extension means knowledge. “Veda” can also mean grass bound together and used as a broom during rites, which again is also from the Tamil word vEithal; it appears that the word was subsequently used to refer to the mantras being chanted and thereafter to the entire collection.
Besides this, there are 800 Tamil words found to have been used in the Rig Veda. Refer to Kamil Svellebelle and Devaneyap PaavaaNar.for the list words. Dr Sountherapaandian, a recent researcher and Sanskrit scholar has found more.
Devapriya should not have brought up this issue in this thread. I suggest she remove it to the appropriate thread and I would do likewise.
Re: Indian Mathematics Heritage
Quote:
Originally Posted by devapriya
We have from Bower Manuscript, a Mathematical Manuscript dated to 50 BCE in SANSkrit and of AyurVeda in plenty from 2nd Cen. CE onwards.
Can you cite a source for that dating, please? I've usually seen the Bower manuscript (or rather, manuscripts, since they're really seven different manuscripts) dated to around 350 - 450 AD, not 50 BC. And the bulk of them deal with medicine, not mathematics.
Quote:
Originally Posted by devapriya
Which of the Indo-Eurpean language group, is dated securely to have existed in pre- Christian era, is dated scientifically with the help of dated inscriptions or artifacts?
Of the top of my head, I can think of Hittite (attested by tens of thousands of cuneiform inscriptions dating back to the 14th century BC), Mycenean Greek (attested by around six thousand inscriptions in the Linear B script dating back to the 13th century BC or thereabouts), Leptonic Gaulish (inscriptions in the Old Italic script from the 6th century BC), Latin (inscriptions in the Old Italic script from the 6th century BC) and Venetic (inscriptions in the Northern Italic script from the 5th century BC). There are probably more which I can't think off right away. These are older than the oldest established dates for any inscriptions in any Indian language, be it Indo-European or Dravidian.
Quote:
Originally Posted by devapriya
All the Numerals have Sanskrit names, and many proofs in abundance is given, and further can be added.
In a previous post replying to you in your incarnation as Solomon, I explained why the Sanskrit numbers could not have linguistically given rise to the numeral systems in other Indo-European languages. It would be good if you explained, preferably with reference to scholarly sources, why you disagree.