admissibility and relevance
The title “Genocide of Hindus” in my view is quite wide and we should be able to talk about not only the numbers killed in each event if any, but also when, where, how, why and so forth. The last item : “why” is indeed very wide and that should provide us enough room to discuss the relative strengths and weaknesses of Hinduism and Hindus as causes in the topic “genocide”. We can also talk about the effects of these genocides on succeeding generations! “..of Hindus” , depending on the context, may also mean “by Hindus”. It can also be extended to Hindus killing themselves in addition to Hindus being killed by non-Hindus. In a proper study, you may even have to touch upon the definition of term “Hindus”, their origin and their –ism. It all depends on how a writer or speaker will treat the subject. “..of Hindus” is in the genitive case and therefore it may include “Genocide on Hindus” as well as “Genocide by Hindus”. Natural progression of the heading may go beyond the actual contemplation of the person who started the thread, the possibility of such contemplation being narrower than that of the other hubbers but such progression is not inherently wrong.
I am not suggesting any group has committed genocide on any other group now or in the past. I am just trying to say how the title of this thread can be treated by any scholar or student.
Genocide has been defined in UN Law. Killing in a war is not automatically a genocide. Can someone reproduce the UN definition so that our hubbers can use it as a guide in our discussion.
Re: how to correct the past?
[quote="bis_mala"][color=blue]
It has been said almost all the Muslims of South Asia are descendants of weaker elements of the population who had succumbed to forcible Islamic conversion.
[/quote="bis_mala"][color=blue]
True. 95% of the muslims in India are NOT the foreign invaders. But I do not agree with you in describing them as "converts". They were never a part of the "Hindu society" at all and it had been like that several thousand years. I would rather use the word "adoption" of Islam and not "convertion" to Islam.
If the same Islam had said a "black" cannot become a priest then it would have died long time back. It is a religion where poor and under-privileged or anyone can adopt it as their own. They can go and become "priest" very easily. In that way it is a very tolerant religion.
It is not a coincidence that the entire Africa and the under-developed countries are all Islamic. If someone tells me that they were Islamites first and that is why they are under-developed, I will laugh at their patheric ignorance.
On the other hand, tell me how a non-Hindu can convert to Hinduism. Simply they will create another caste for him marking his limits and boundaries in the society. There is no way he can convert and blend-in into the society.
The other day a ugly safron clad guy comes to me and begs me to dress-up (undress-up) like Ram and apply all that "blue die" for a small village level "Yatra" his party was organizing. Before that he had visited my house hundreds of times and asked me all sort of questions on my "origin". Just like Eelavar does in this thread. BS !
See how the Christian missionaries who come to help and embrace the SC and ST in Bihar are burnt alive. You are afraid of all other religions because they are going to somehow affect your status quo.
Actually you are not hating Islam or Christianity. You are hating the "SC and ST" people who you have hated for several thousand years. You are not able to tolerate them even if they get converted to other religions.
HINDUISM IS THE MOST INTOLERANT OF ALL RELIGIONS, pathetically, even today. Imagine how it should have been in those "glorious days".
Re: how to correct the past?
Quote:
Originally Posted by pizzalot
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HINDUISM IS THE MOST INTOLERANT OF ALL RELIGIONS, pathetically, even today. Imagine how it should have been in those "glorious days".
Why do you say so Pizzalot? Each religion has its points of flexibility and rigidities. If you are saying that it is intolerant because of the caste system, it has been pointed out that you do not have to believe in caste to be a Hindu. It is not an "article of faith". Internal Divisions may have pre-existed "Hinduism" and been adopted by it . As t0 its alleged stance against conversions out of it, these may be the acts of misguided individuals. There is no unanimity among Hindus to take such a stance against Christian missionary. On the other hand, Hindus too do not have the open licence to convert say in Saudi Arabia or even in Britain those inhabitants there to their religion.
Hindu temples had been attacked in Malaysia too.
Can you elaborate on your assertion pl.
Re: how to correct the past?
Quote:
Originally Posted by bis_mala
Quote:
Originally Posted by pizzalot
[
HINDUISM IS THE MOST INTOLERANT OF ALL RELIGIONS, pathetically, even today. Imagine how it should have been in those "glorious days".
Why do you say so Pizzalot? Each religion has its points of flexibility and rigidities. If you are saying that it is intolerant because of the caste system, it has been pointed out that you do not have to believe in caste to be a Hindu. It is not an "article of faith". Internal Divisions may have pre-existed "Hinduism" and been adopted by it . As t0 its alleged stamce againstt conversions out of it, these may be the acts of misguided individuals. There is no unanimity among Hindus to take such a stance against Christian missionary. On the other hand, Hindus too do not have the open licence to convert say in Saudi Arabia or even in Britain those inhabitants there to their religion.
Hindu temples had been attacked in Malaysia too.
Can you elaborate on your assertion pl.
Other religions have a single code of conduct for all its members. So atleast within the religion there is tolerance. Hinduism is in-tolerant even within its members. The Dharma is very different for a man, woman, Kshatriya , Brahmin or Vyshya. There is a high-intolerance if anyone breaches this code.
Even within caste and even within families, the tolerance is very low. Brahmins have more in-tolerance for any breach of conduct by the men and women of even their own caste. It will be the father inflicting wounds on his daughter or the Husband demanding his wife "agni pariksha or Jal Parishuth" and so on. (So unfortunate that all women do not have the power of Sita to come out of the fire-pyre alive).
Tell me what is the "article of faith" of Hindus and what is its use from a practical point of view ?
How much the eipcs, scriptures, puranas etc of Hinduism, have really helped frame the Hindu Laws in India ? The epics, gospels etc I believe have this "article of faith" central to in them. So we should be able to turn them into practical laws and expect evey Hindu to abide by it.
We know for sure we could not base our Constitution upon it. But how much the Hindu Laws itself have been derived from Hindu scriptures ? If the current Hindu Law is nothing to do with Ramayana or Mahabharatha or any Purana or "article of faith" then what use have we got reading and spending so much time on them ?
We do not want people to receive lessons and morals which will contradict the Hindu Law itself. On the other-hand is it practically possible to base the Hindu Law on this "article of faith" ? I am not saying the entire legal system should conform to the article of faith of Hinduism. I am just talking about the Sections in the Hindu Law which is meant for Hindus.
I know several places where the Gods and Gospels contradict the Hindu Law. For example, MonoGyny or "one woman to one woman marriage". Polygyny is illegal in Hindu Law. Several Gods are in violation to law even according to us, the Hindus. And so are several famous characters in the epics. It is unlawful to venerate someone who has, in his act and deed, is in violation to law.
There are so many examples I can pick-up, which makes me feel whether the Hindu Laws have anything to do with our scriptures. Others have to tell me if I am wrong.
On the contrary Qoran and Bible have been successfuly used and based word by word as Law in several countries.
The minimal requirement of any religious practice is that it should conform to the Legal Laws of its ownpeople. Otherwise we are not only wasting our time teaching and learning them, but actually inducing them to violate the law of the land.
So what use have we got of these scriptures, epics and morals if all they are doing is to prompt us to violate the law ?
Re: how to correct the past?
Quote:
Originally Posted by pizzalot
HINDUISM IS THE MOST INTOLERANT OF ALL RELIGIONS, pathetically, even today. Imagine how it should have been in those "glorious days".
:roll: really?
eelavar: :)
Re: how to correct the past?
Quote:
Originally Posted by pizzalot
HINDUISM IS THE MOST INTOLERANT OF ALL RELIGIONS, pathetically, even today. Imagine how it should have been in those "glorious days".
I think that statement cannot be accepted at face value. I think tolerance is something based on the geographical area or more specifically culture rather than religion.
For example the Islam practiced by the Egyptians is very different to that practiced by Iranians. Its a result of basic cultural differences. The same is true of Hinduism as well. There are differences in the way it is practiced in different parts of India. So blaming one religion, any religion is unfair.
religiously inclined constitution
Quote:
Originally Posted by Pizzalot
]We know for sure we could not base our Constitution upon it. But how much the Hindu Laws itself have been derived from Hindu scriptures ? If the current Hindu Law is nothing to do with Ramayana or Mahabharatha or any Purana or "article of faith" then what use have we got reading and spending so much time on them ?
Well, how would you frame a Hindu legal provision or a Christian legal provision or an Islamic legal provision? You can write into the constitution a provision like this:
1. No Speaker of the Parliament shall commence any parliamentary proceeding without first having conducted a full puuja presided over by a brahmaNa priest in accordance with the Hindu scriptures at least one hour before any such proceeding is scheduled to commence.
In another section of the constitution, you can include a declaratory provision that the Hindu religion shall be the state religion for the Republic of India including the state of Kashmir!!
After writing all such provisions, you still have to define the rights, duties, responsibilities, functions, etc of the various organs of the state and its officers, whether elected or otherwise. Many provisions must necessarily be secular and no religious content can be logically induced into them. It is the success or failure of the secular provisions that will determine the well-being and survival of the state!! Religious provisions will just “decorate” the constitution if anything. Pujaaris can be happy with them, that is all. The same goes for any other religion.
How and to what extent can a constitution be “religionised”? You have to tell us pizzalot!!
Have you read the Pakistani constitution?
Suggest to them to rename the “President” as “Chief Caliph”!
The constitution can then become “more Islamized”.
Reading Ramayana and Puranas: You and I cannot dictate to others what they should do. If you do not want to read it, well and good. If someone else wants to read them, so be it!! What is wrong is reading Ramayana? Ramayana deifies Rama the king as an incarnation just like the Quaran exalted Muhamad as a prophet. Ultimately, it is what you believe. We cannot dictate to people what to believe. When you are unable to tell X what he should believe, why should you tell Y what Y should believe? Or what to read?
Since you will agree God is almighty, there is nothing he cannot do, why can’t he come down as Rama? Is God limited or restricted in some way?
In summary, I would say: they have their freedom in which you and I cannot interfere.